There is a fairly easy question in the problem corner of the latest mathematical excalibur:
Show that n−1∑k=0(−1)kcosn(kπn)=n2n−1, for any positive integer n.
The term 2n−1 is reminiscent of something, isn't it? What is it? How it works?
But I guess there must be some combinatorics/probabilistic argument, especially the use of inclusion-exclusion principle.
I am glad that Kin Li adopted my solution of the strange inequality and quoted my name^^.
For details:
http://www.math.ust.hk/excalibur/v14_n3.pdf
(You can search LEE Ching Cheong to see where I am XD)
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