I am here to post my answer (numerical and method only) for my teammate, you can use it to check. If our answers are different, please discuss with me.
Problem (1990 Austrian-Polish Math Competition)
Let n>1 be an integer and let f1,f2,…,fn! be the n! permutations of 1,2,…,n (each fi is a bijective function from {1,2,…,n} to itself). For each permutation fi, let us define S(fi)=n∑k=1|fi(k)−k|. Find 1n!n!∑i=1S(fi).
My numerical answer. n2−13.
Next question I just use Jensen's inequality once.
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