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Thursday, February 25, 2010

MATH190 presentation next week

I am here to post my answer (numerical and method only) for my teammate, you can use it to check. If our answers are different,  please discuss with me.

Problem (1990 Austrian-Polish Math Competition)
Let n>1 be an integer and let f1,f2,,fn! be the n! permutations of 1,2,,n (each fi is a bijective function from {1,2,,n} to itself).  For each permutation fi, let us define S(fi)=nk=1|fi(k)k|. Find 1n!n!i=1S(fi).

My numerical answer. n213.

Next question I just use Jensen's inequality once.

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