Thursday, February 25, 2010
MATH190 presentation next week
I am here to post my answer (numerical and method only) for my teammate, you can use it to check. If our answers are different, please discuss with me.
Problem (1990 Austrian-Polish Math Competition)
Let $ n>1$ be an integer and let $ f_1,f_2,\dots, f_{n!}$ be the $ n!$ permutations of $ 1,2,\dots,n$ (each $ f_i$ is a bijective function from $ \{1,2,\dots,n\}$ to itself). For each permutation $ f_i$, let us define $ \displaystyle S(f_i)=\sum_{k=1}^n|f_i(k)-k|$. Find $ \displaystyle \frac{1}{n!}\sum_{i=1}^{n!}S(f_i)$.
My numerical answer. $ \displaystyle \frac{n^2-1}{3}$.
Next question I just use Jensen's inequality once.
Problem (1990 Austrian-Polish Math Competition)
Let $ n>1$ be an integer and let $ f_1,f_2,\dots, f_{n!}$ be the $ n!$ permutations of $ 1,2,\dots,n$ (each $ f_i$ is a bijective function from $ \{1,2,\dots,n\}$ to itself). For each permutation $ f_i$, let us define $ \displaystyle S(f_i)=\sum_{k=1}^n|f_i(k)-k|$. Find $ \displaystyle \frac{1}{n!}\sum_{i=1}^{n!}S(f_i)$.
My numerical answer. $ \displaystyle \frac{n^2-1}{3}$.
Next question I just use Jensen's inequality once.
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