\( \newcommand{\N}{\mathbb{N}} \newcommand{\R}{\mathbb{R}} \newcommand{\C}{\mathbb{C}} \newcommand{\Q}{\mathbb{Q}} \newcommand{\Z}{\mathbb{Z}} \newcommand{\P}{\mathcal P} \newcommand{\B}{\mathcal B} \newcommand{\F}{\mathbb{F}} \newcommand{\E}{\mathcal E} \newcommand{\brac}[1]{\left(#1\right)} \newcommand{\abs}[1]{\left|#1\right|} \newcommand{\matrixx}[1]{\begin{bmatrix}#1\end {bmatrix}} \newcommand{\vmatrixx}[1]{\begin{vmatrix} #1\end{vmatrix}} \newcommand{\lims}{\mathop{\overline{\lim}}} \newcommand{\limi}{\mathop{\underline{\lim}}} \newcommand{\limn}{\lim_{n\to\infty}} \newcommand{\limsn}{\lims_{n\to\infty}} \newcommand{\limin}{\limi_{n\to\infty}} \newcommand{\nul}{\mathop{\mathrm{Nul}}} \newcommand{\col}{\mathop{\mathrm{Col}}} \newcommand{\rank}{\mathop{\mathrm{Rank}}} \newcommand{\dis}{\displaystyle} \newcommand{\spann}{\mathop{\mathrm{span}}} \newcommand{\range}{\mathop{\mathrm{range}}} \newcommand{\inner}[1]{\langle #1 \rangle} \newcommand{\innerr}[1]{\left\langle #1 \right \rangle} \newcommand{\ol}[1]{\overline{#1}} \newcommand{\toto}{\rightrightarrows} \newcommand{\upto}{\nearrow} \newcommand{\downto}{\searrow} \newcommand{\qed}{\quad \blacksquare} \newcommand{\tr}{\mathop{\mathrm{tr}}} \newcommand{\bm}{\boldsymbol} \newcommand{\cupp}{\bigcup} \newcommand{\capp}{\bigcap} \newcommand{\sqcupp}{\bigsqcup} \newcommand{\re}{\mathop{\mathrm{Re}}} \newcommand{\im}{\mathop{\mathrm{Im}}} \newcommand{\comma}{\text{,}} \newcommand{\foot}{\text{。}} \)

Thursday, February 25, 2010

MATH190 presentation next week

I am here to post my answer (numerical and method only) for my teammate, you can use it to check. If our answers are different,  please discuss with me.

Problem (1990 Austrian-Polish Math Competition)
Let $  n>1$ be an integer and let $  f_1,f_2,\dots, f_{n!}$ be the $  n!$ permutations of $  1,2,\dots,n$ (each $  f_i$ is a bijective function from $  \{1,2,\dots,n\}$ to itself).  For each permutation $  f_i$, let us define $  \displaystyle S(f_i)=\sum_{k=1}^n|f_i(k)-k|$. Find $  \displaystyle \frac{1}{n!}\sum_{i=1}^{n!}S(f_i)$.

My numerical answer. $  \displaystyle \frac{n^2-1}{3}$.

Next question I just use Jensen's inequality once.

No comments:

Post a Comment